CCNA Routing and Switching Complete Study Guide. Todd Lammle
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38. Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
39. There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table?
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. All three
40. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.
41. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.)
A. router eigrp 10
B. router ospf 10
C. router rip
D. network 10.0.0.0
E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0
G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
42. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
43. If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface
B. The highest IP address of any physical interface
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface
44. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunking Protocol
B. VLAN
C. 802.1q
D. ISL
45. What is a stub network?
A. A network with more than one exit point
B. A network with more than one exit and entry point
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point
46. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
A. Session layer
B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Application layer
47. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)
A. Standard
B. IEEE
C. Extended
D. Specialized
48. Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.128.0/16
C. 192.168.128.0/19
D. 192.168.128.0/20
49. What command is used to create a backup configuration?
A. copy running backup
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D. wr net
50. 1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3f
B. 802.3z
C. 802.3ab
D. 802.3ae
51. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
52. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000 bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000
53. Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists
54. Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.
D. ISL is a standard.
55. The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?
A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data
B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets
C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits
D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data
56. Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?
A. This is a multilayer switch.
B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet.
C. Encapsulation must be configured.
D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.
Answers to Assessment Test
1. B. To allow for the PVST+ to operate, there's a field inserted into the BPDU to accommodate the extended system ID so that PVST+ can have a root bridge configured on a per-STP instance. The extended system ID (VLAN ID) is a 12-bit field, and we can even see what this field is carrying via show spanning-tree command output. See Chapter 15 for more information.
2. A. Cisco's EtherChannel can bundle up to eight ports between switches to provide resiliency and more bandwidth between switches. See Chapter 15 for more information.
3. B, C, E. All the ports on both sides of every link must be configured exactly the same between switches or it will not work. Speed, duplex, and allowed VLANs must match. See Chapter 15 for more information.
4. C. 2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash. See Chapter 8 for more information.
5. D.