CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide. Ben Piper

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CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide - Ben Piper


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for data in the cloud belongs to the organization that owns the data.

      35 C. An application programming interface (API) offers programmatic access, control, and configuration of a device between different and discrete software components.

      36 C. Automation of cloud deployments was instrumental in the growth of cloud-based services.

      37 C. Intrusion prevention systems monitor for malicious activity and actively take countermeasures to eliminate or reduce the effects of the intrusion.

      38 B, D. One-time numerical tokens are generated on key fob hardware devices or smartphone soft-token applications.

      39 B. SSL/TLS is most commonly used with web and smartphone applications. MD5 is a hash algorithm. IPsec is used to create VPNs over a public network, but VPNs are not as common as SSL/TLS for the scenario given.

      40 C. Based on the information given, the description is for a vendor-based management application.

      41 B. A patch is a piece of software that updates an application or operating system, to add a feature, fix a bug, or improve performance.

      42 C. Blue-green is a software deployment model that uses two configurations for production that are identical to each other. These deployments can alternate between each other, with one active and the other inactive.

      43 C. Incremental backups are operations based on changes of the source data since the last incremental backup was performed.

      44 B. A snapshot is a file-based image of the current state of a VM, including the complete operating system and all applications stored on it. The snapshot will record the data on the disk and optionally its memory contents at that instant in time.

      45 C. Orchestration systems enable large-scale cloud deployments by automating operations.

      46 A, C, E. Common automation offerings are Chef, Puppet, and Ansible.

      47 B. A rolling configuration will sequentially upgrade the web servers without causing a complete outage and would meet the requirements outlined in the question.

      48 C. Cloning takes the master image and clones it to be used as another separate and independent VM. Important components of a server are changed to prevent address conflicts; these include the UUID and MAC addresses of the cloned server.

      49 D. The manager is requesting data on the results of the quality assurance testing on the release.

      50 A. A hotfix is a software update type that is intended to fix an immediate and specific problem.

      51 B. Moving inactive data to a separate storage facility for long-term storage is called archiving.

      52 A. The hot site model is the most viable option given the requirements. A hot site is a fully functional backup site that can assume operations immediately should the primary location fail or go offline.

      53 B. Asynchronous replication is when data is written to the primary first, and then later a copy is written to the remote site on a scheduled arrangement or in near real time.

      54 B. Edge locations are not complete cloud data centers. There are cloud connection points located in major cities and offer local caching of data for reduced response times.

      55 C. The recovery time objective is the amount of time a system can be offline during a disaster; it's the amount of time it takes to get a service online and available after a failure.

      56 B. A warm site approach to recovering from a primary data center outage is when the remote backup of the site is offline except for critical data storage, which is usually a database.

      57 E. A cold site is a backup data center provisioned to take over operations in the event of a primary data center failure, but the servers and infrastructure are not deployed or operational until needed.

      58 B. The restore point objective is the point in time that data can be recovered.

      59 A. Synchronous replication offerings write data to both the primary storage system and the replica simultaneously to ensure that the remote data is current with local replicas.

      60 B, C. The restore point and restore time objectives are the measurements for the amount of data lost and the time needed to get back online after an outage.

      61 C. Cloud automation systems offer the ability to add and remove resources dynamically as needed; this is referred to as elasticity.

      62 B. With the PaaS model, the cloud provider will maintain the operating system and all supporting infrastructure.

      63 C. The higher up the services stack you go, from IaaS to PaaS to SaaS, the more difficult it will be to migrate. With IaaS, most of the cloud operations are under your direct control, which gives you the most flexibility to migrate. However, if the cloud provider controls the application, you may not have many migration options.

      64 A, B, D. Cloud computing operates with a utility business model that charges you only for the resources that you consume. This model enables you to scale your cloud fleet to meet its current workload and be able to add and remove capacity as needed. There are many options to use elasticity to scale cloud operations, including vertical and horizontal scaling and bursting.

      65 B. Scaling up, or vertical scaling, will add resources such as CPU instances or more RAM. When you scale up, you are increasing your compute, network, or storage capabilities.

      66 C. The establishment of average usage over time is the data that gets collected for a baseline report.

      67 B. Cloud bursting allows for adding capacity from another cloud service during times when additional resources are needed.

      68 B. The measurement of the difference between a current reading and the baseline value is referred to as the variance.

      69 C. Change management includes recording the change, planning for the change, testing the documentation, getting approvals, evaluating and validating, writing instructions for backing out the change if needed, and doing post-change review if desired.

      70 C. The ability to disable an account can be helpful in situations where the account will need to be reactivated at a future date and does not need to be deleted.

      71 B, E, F. Trends, usage, and deficiencies are all management report outputs that can be identified using object tracking.

      72 A, D, E. CPU, RAM, and network utilization are all important objects to manage for capacity and utilization tracking. Storage volume tiers and OS versions do not apply to this scenario.

      73 D. Objects are queried to gather metric data.

      74 B. Tracking object performance data should match with the guaranteed levels outlined in the service level agreement.

      75 C. A dashboard is a configurable graphical representation of current operational data.

      76 B. If a server is using all of its network bandwidth, then the most logical solution is to increase the network adapters' bandwidth or add a second adapter and create a teaming configuration.

      77 A. Horizontal scaling is the process of adding servers to a pool for increased capacity. Round-robin is a load-balancing metric and does not apply. Elasticity is the ability to add and remove resources, autoscaling is the automated process of adding and removing capacity, and vertical scaling is expanding a server.

      78 E. Vertical scaling is the process of upgrading or replacing a server with one that has greater capabilities.

      79 A, C, D. Server performance can be increased by adding CPU processing, memory, and network capacity. SLA, ACL, and DNS are not related to increasing server capacity.

      80 D. Cloud reports are formatted collections of data contained in the management or monitoring applications.

      81 B. The cloud service provider owns its automation and orchestration systems, and they cannot be directly accessed by the customer.

      82 C. It's common for batch processing to be performed on database applications.

      83 B. A large number of users downloading a new application would cause an increase in network bandwidth usage.

      84 D.


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